First Corinthians 15:29: Options for Baptism of the Dead
1. Paul acknowledges that the Corinthian church practices baptism for the dead, and accepts it as Christian practice. This may be accurate, although it is nowhere mentioned in the Bible as an accepted practice. In fact, all things physically dead are usually shunned in the Old Testament, and the New Testament exhorts people to leave the dead in the hands of God and function among the living. Also, why baptize for the dead? Can it save them? Do they need to be a member of a certain church in order to get into heaven? If so, does this not go against what Paul preaches about salvation by faith? I don't see any value in baptism for the dead, regardless of who practices it. If they are dead, then they are in God's hands. If they need saving, it is too late--and my baptism for them couldn't make that happen anyway.
2. Paul acknowledges that the Corinthians practice baptism for the dead, and he simply uses it as an illustration, to their shame. The reasoning here is that Paul did not rebuke them, but he did not accept their practice either. There are no words of praise for this practice. His point is this: if you practice baptism for the dead (which I do not agree with--implied), then you should not question the resurrection of the dead (which I believe in).
3. Paul acknowledges an accepted practice by local pagan religions as an example of their belief in the resurrection, and rebuke the Corinthians for their lack of faith in the resurrection. This would mean that Paul sees baptism for the dead as a pagan activity that is not acceptable. Yet, even the pagan's believe in resurrection while believing Christians do not. The irony is thick, and his criticism would not be missed.
4. Paul is speaking metaphorically about baptism itself: what will we do about those baptized into death. Paul uses death as a metaphor in the next verse: I die everyday. A metaphor relieves the interpreter of any conflicts concerning the practice of a strange type of baptism. However, it does not do justice to the grammar and the context of Corinth pagan cults.
Of these four options, #1 seems to be the most direct reading of the passage and context. Yet, it has no other biblical support, and has little support in Christian practice (outside of Mormonism and some medieval Catholic teachings) and Christian doctrine (salvation by grace).
I prefer #3 because 1) of the lack of biblical support for the practice, 2) biblical support for personal baptism, and 3)Greek rhetorical grammar, which is explained in great detail at his website: http://www.tektonics.org/mordef/baptdead.html.
To put it simply, Paul does not use baptism of the dead to affirm the resurrection of Christ in v. 12-19. He does not mention it at all. Then in v. 29, when Paul mentions baptism for the dead, he does so to their shame, not as a compliment. Do you believe in the resurrection? Why not! Even pagans baptize for the dead because they believe. Why don't you?!! OR Do you believe in the resurrection? Why not! You baptize for the dead?!! What's the point if you don't believe?!!
Either way, he does not agree with the baptism for the dead, he simply uses the practice to assert that some believe in a resurrection, to the shame of the Corinthians who do not.
Labels: baptism, First Corinthians